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A 55 year old gentleman is admitted to the neurology ward with a 4 week history of headache and visual changes particularly when bending forward or coughing. He is otherwise fit and well with only hypertension in his past medical history. What clinical finding would be in keeping with this presentation?
A 55 year old gentleman is admitted to the neurology ward with a 4 week history of headache and visual changes particularly when bending forward or coughing. He is otherwise fit and well with only hypertension in his past medical history. On fundoscopy he has gross papilloedema bilaterally. What is the most important investigation?
A 55 year old gentleman is admitted to the neurology ward with a 4 week history of headache and visual changes particularly when bending forward or coughing. He is otherwise fit and well with only hypertension in his past medical history. On fundoscopy he has gross papilloedema bilaterally. His MR venogram shows extensive venous sinus thrombosis. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A 50 year old man presents to A&E with a sudden onset headache which came on 2 hours ago. He has associated nausea and neck stiffness. Examination is unremarkable. He is apyrexic but sensitive to the light. What is the most likely diagnosis?
TeesNeuro.org: A 50 year old man presents to A&E with a sudden onset headache which came on 2 hours ago. He has associated nausea and neck stiffness. Examination is unremarkable. He is haemodynamically stable and apyrexic, but sensitive to the light. He has a CT brain which is normal. What would you do next?
A 50 year old man presents to A&E with a sudden onset headache which came on 2 hours ago. He has associated nausea and neck stiffness. Examination is unremarkable. He is apyrexic but sensitive to the light. CT head is NAD however on lumbar puncture, CSF is positive for xanthochromia. What is the most likely underlying cause of this current event?
A 60 year old woman is seen in the GP surgery with brief episodes of severe shooting pain in the left side of her face. This seems to be triggered by movement and pressure to her face. She has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and osteoarthritis. Neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 60 year old woman is seen in the GP surgery with brief episodes of severe shooting pain in the left side of her face. This seems to be triggered by movement and pressure to her face. She has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and osteoarthritis. Neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
TeesNeuro.org
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